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Client purchased house in 2004 that was pdh up until 2012 when he bought another house. He sold the first house in 2016 at a loss. Can all of this loss be claimed against cgt profits or does it have to be apportioned as it was his pdh for 8 of the 12 years he owned it?

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Posted by (Questions: 29, Answers: 5)
Asked on 5 October 2017 5:34 pm
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The loss must be apportioned, reducing the loss in the same way as any gain would have been reduced.

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Posted by (Questions: 15, Answers: 619)
Answered on 6 October 2017 8:59 pm